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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.

Topic 2

Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

Topic 3

Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
A release manager has noticed that the organization has many standardized services provided to international organizations. Which aspect of release management will this situation directly affect?

A. The release models
B. Continuous integration
C. The release plans
D. Continuous delivery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Standardized services provided to international organizations imply a need for consistency andscalability in how releases are managed across diverse contexts. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains that release models are used to standardize the approach to releases:"Release models define the structure, contents, and schedule of releases... They ensure consistent and repeatable processes, which is particularly important for organizations with standardized services"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (The release plans) refers to specific plans for individual releases, which may be affected indirectly but are not the primary aspect impacted by standardization needs.
* Option B (Continuous integration) and Option C (Continuous delivery) are development practices that may interact with release management but are not directly affected by the need for standardization across international services.
* Option D (The release models) is directly affected, as standardized services require well-defined release models to ensure consistency, repeatability, and scalability across international contexts.
The situation directly impacts the design and application of release models to accommodate standardized services globally. Thus, the correct answer is D.

NEW QUESTION # 11
An organization's project and operational teams are concerned that individual releases involve some unnecessary activities and are missing some important activities. What is the BEST action for the organization to take to improve this situation?

A. Ensure that release management key metrics are integrated with metrics relating to deployment management and change enablement
B. Introduce proactive communication channels for the service provider to make release management processes more efficient
C. Automate the release management activities together with development activities
D. Review current release models, create additional models where appropriate, and automate where possible

Answer: D

Explanation:
The concern about unnecessary and missing activities in releases points to issues with the release models being used. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"To address inefficiencies in release processes, such as unnecessary or missing activities, organizations should review current release models, create additional models where appropriate to address gaps, and automate repetitive tasks to improve efficiency"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Introduce proactive communication channels) improves stakeholder engagementbut doesn't directly address the issue of unnecessary or missing activities.
* Option B (Review current release models, create additional models, and automate) directly tackles the problem by refining the release models to eliminate unnecessary activities, add missing ones, and enhance efficiency through automation.
* Option C (Integrate metrics with deployment and change enablement) focuses on performance measurement, not process improvement.
* Option D (Automate with development activities) addresses automation but doesn't specifically tackle the issue of refining release activities.
The correct answer is B, as it directly addresses the root cause by improving release models.

NEW QUESTION # 12
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

A. A 'pull' approach
B. A 'push' approach
C. Continuous integration
D. Continuous delivery

Answer: B

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 13
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?

A. Review the effectiveness of release models
B. Ensure an excellent user experience
C. Do not overcomplicate the practice
D. Optimize the practice for the value streams

Answer: B

Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.

NEW QUESTION # 14
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?

A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.

NEW QUESTION # 15
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